In the very distant geological past, all animals were aquatic. The very first vertebrates or animals with backbones, of which we have any fossil record, lived in water. These vertebrates, the fish, were adapted to underwater living. Their streamlined bodies were covered with scales to reduce surface friction; they had muscular tails so that they could swim swiftly in such a dense medium as water; and they were endowed with gills for breathing underwater.

Descendants of fish-type ancestors crossed the seashore barrier and accommodated themselves to life on land. As amphibians, they possessed limbs instead of fins and lungs instead of gills. But they never became completely free of the bonds that tied them to the water; even today many amphibians return to the water to lay their eggs.

Millions of years after the first clumsy amphibians crawled over the land, newer types of land dwellers appeared, these animals gave rise to the present-day reptiles and mammals. They were completely converted for land dwelling, with bodies and biological activities far different from those of fish. With these special adaptations, mammals have been able to colonize the woods and meadows, the deserts and high mountains, often far removed from the sea.

Question 35: Of the animals with backbones, the first to appear were _____.

A. fish B. amphibians C. birds D. mammals

Question 36: Fish are suited to underwater life because of their_____.

A. scales, gills and bodies B. backbones and tails

C. their muscular tails D. limbs and lungs

Question 37: The word “descendants” is closest in meaning to _____.

A. grandchildren B. ancestors C. forefathers D. offspring

Question 38: The word “they” in the first paragraph refers to _____.

A. the scales B. the animals C. the vertebrates D. the bodies

Question 39: The word “those” in the last paragraph refers to _____.

A. reptiles and mammals B. bodies and biological activities

C. newer types of land dwellers D. special adaptations

Question 40: Animals found desert living possible only_____.

A. when they were fully adapted to land B. after they could walk on two feet

C. when they became amphibious D. if they migrated to sea periodically

Question 41: The seashore was a barrier for descendants of fish-type because_____.

A. crossing it required bodily changes

B. every attempt to cross it ended in death

C. the land once rose much higher above the sea

D. once they crossed, there was no return

Question 42: The text is about _____.

A. The evolution of animals B. The adaptation process

C. The historical of animals D. The vertebrates and amphibians

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.

Question 43: “Why don’t you asked the teacher for help?” Peter asked me

A. Peter advised me to ask the teacher for help.

B. Peter recommend me not to ask the teacher for help.

C. Peter told me the reason why I did not ask the teacher for help.

D. Peter suggested that he should ask the teacher for help.

Question 44: People say that six out of the seven wonders of the ancient world were destroyed.
A. It was said that six out of the seven wonders of the ancient world were destroyed.
B. Six out of the seven wonders of the ancient world is said to be destroyed.
C. Six out of the seven wonders of the ancient world is said to have destroyed.
D. Six out of the seven wonders of the ancient world are said to have been destroyed.

Question 45: Without transportation, our modern society would not exist.

A. If there were no transportation, our modern society would not exist.

B. If transportation no longer exists, our modern society will not exist.

C. Our modern society does not exist if there is no transportation.

D. Our modern society will not exist without having traffic.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.

Question 46: He approached the house. Soon afterward the policeman stopped him.

A. No sooner had he approached the house than the policeman stopped him.

B. Hardly had he approached the house than the policeman stopped him.

C. No sooner had he approached the house when the policeman stopped him.

D. Hardly he had approached the house when the policeman stopped him.

Question 47: The house is for sale. I was born in it.

A. The house that I was born is for sale.

B. The house in which I was born is for sale.

C. The house which I was born is for sale.

D. The house where I was born in is for sale.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.

Question 48: A beaver uses its strong front teeth to cut down trees and peel off its bark.

A B C D

Question 49: One or the other of the secretaries have to attend the meeting. But both of them are

A B C

reluctant to do so.

D

Question 50: A paragraph is a portion of a text consists of one or more sentences related to the

A B C D

same idea.

ĐỀ 30

ĐỀ THI THỬ THPT QUỐC GIA 2020

MÔN TIẾNG ANH

Thời gian: 60 phút

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part

differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions from 1 to 2

Question 1: A. championship B. scholarship C. mechanic D. chemical

Question 2: A. sacrificed B. interfered C. approached D. established

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the

other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions from 3 to 4

Question 3: A. vulnerable B. compliment C. counterpart D. interviewee

Question 4: A. survive B. workforce C. bamboo D. exist

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of

the following questions from 5 to 16

Question 5: If I _____ that there was a test yesterday, I would not be punished now.

A. would know B. had known C. have known D. knew

Question 6: The higher the pollution becomes, _______ lose their natural habitats.

A. the more animals B. more animals C. many animals D. the most animals

Question 7: I don’t think that everyone likes the way he makes fun, ________?

A. don’t I B. do I C. do they D. don’t they

Question 8: Tom looks so frightened and upset. He __________ something terrible.

A. must experience B. can have experienced C. should have experienced D. must have experienced

Question 9: Mr. Nam ________ in the army from 1970 to 1980.

A. has served B. had been serving C. had served D. served

Question 10: You’d better save some money for a rainy day. You can’t count on ______ by your parents every time you get into financial difficulty.

A. rescuing B. being rescued C. to rescue D. to be rescued

Question 11: People are advised to _______ smoking because of its harm to their health.

A. cut down on B. cut off C. cut in D. cut down

Question 12: I think you’d be good at this job. Why don’t you _______ it?

A. take care of B. apply for C. take after D. put off

Question 13: If oil supplies run out in 2050 then we need to find _________ energy sources.

A. alternative B. alternating C. alternate D. altering

Question 14: The kind-hearted woman _______ all her life to helping the disabled and the poor.

A. wasted B. spent C. dedicated D. lived

Question 15:With the victory over Germany in the final match, Brazil became the first team______ the trophy five times.

A. who win B. winning C. to win D. won

Question 16: The bombardment from the sea and the air ___________ large parts of the city.

A. drowned B. abolished C. liquidated D. demolished

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best completes

each of the following exchanges from 17 to 18

Question 17: - Peter: “Thank you for your lovely dinner. You are an excellent cook!”

- Lucy: “___________________”

A. I’m glad you like it. You must come again. B. No, thanks, I will have to try more.

C. No. I am not. My sister cooks better than me D. Yes, right. I often cook in my family.

Question 18: A - “Would you mind lending me your bike?”

B - “ ”.

A. Yes, let’s B. Not at all C. Great D. Yes. Here it is

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in

meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions from 19 to 20

Question 19: In some societies, language is associated with social class and education. People judge one’s level in society by the kind of language used.

A. connected with B. not allowed by C. separated from D. dissimilar to

Question 20: There was a long period without rain in the countryside last year so the harvest was poor.

A. epidemic B. drought C. famine D. flood

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in

meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions from 21 to 22

Question 21: How many countries will take part in the final tournament of the World Cup 2018?

A. succeed B. participate in C. perform D. host

Question 22: Don’t forget to drop me a line while you are away.

A. call me B. give me a ring C. drop in me D. write to me

Mark the letter A,B,C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines

each pair of sentences in the following questions from 23 to 24

Question 23: She helped us a lot with our project. We couldn’t continue without her.

A. Unless we had her contribution, we could continue with the project.

B. But for her contribution, we could have continued with the project.

C. If she hadn’t contributed positively, we couldn’t have continued with the project.

D. Provided her contribution wouldn’t come, we couldn’t continue with the project.

Question 24: She received the exam results. She immediately phoned her mom.

A. She immediately phoned her mom that she would receive the exam results

B. No sooner had she received the exam results than she phoned her mom.

C. Hardly had she phoned her mom when she received the exam results.

D. She received the exam results immediately after she phoned her mom.

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is CLOSEST

in meaning to each of the following questions from 25 to 27

Question 25: “Are you going to the cinema with us tonight, Susan?” asked her friends

A. Susan’s friends asked her whether she went to the cinema with them that night.

B. Susan’s friends asked her if she was going to the cinema with them that night.

C. Susan’s friends would like to invite her to go to the cinema with them that night.

D. Susan’s friends would rather her went to the cinema with them that night.

Question 26: It is said that Mrs. Turner was having business difficulties.

A. Mrs. Turner is said to have been having business difficulties.

B. People said that Mrs. Turner was having business difficulties.

C. Mrs. Turner is said to be having business difficulties. D. Mrs. Turner was having business difficulties is said.

Question 27: You should have persuaded him to change his mind.

A. It was essential to persuade him to change his mind but you didn’t.

B. You didn’t persuade him to change because of his mind.

C. You persuade him to change his mind but he didn’t listen.

D. You should persuade him to change his mind.

Mark the letter A,B,C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs

correction in each of the following questions from 28 to 30

Question 28: Dogs that are trained to lead the blind must be loyalty, intelligent and calm.

A B C D

Question 29: I enjoy reading the article that you told me about it yesterday.

A B C D

Question 30: Having served lunch, the medical staff continued to discuss the problems.

A B C D

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate

the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 31 to 35

HERE ARE TIPS THAT HELP SUCCEED IN YOUR JOB INTERVIEW

Always arrive early. If you do not know (31) ____________ the organization is located, call for exact directions (32) ____________ advance. Leave some extra time for any traffic, parking, or unexpected events. If you are running late, call right away and let someone know.

The best time to arrive is approximately 5 - 10 minutes early. Give yourself the time to read your résumé one more time, to catch your breath, and to be ready for the interview. Once you are at the office, treat everyone you encounter with respect. Be (33) ____________ to everyone as soon as you walk in the door.

Wear a professional business suit. This point should be emphasized enough. First (34)____________ are extremely important in the interview process. Women should (35)____________ wearing too much jewelry or make-up. Men should avoid flashy suits or wearing too much perfume. It is also important that you feel comfortable. While a suit is the standard interview attire in a business environment, if you think it is an informal environment, call before and ask. Regardless, you can never be overdressed if you are wearing a tailored suit.

Question 31: A. when B. why C. where D. that

Question 32: A. with B. in C. on D. for

Question 33: A. happy B. pleasant C. disappointed D. excited

Question 34: A. attendances B. attentions C. impressions D. pressures

Question 35: A. avoid B. suggest C. enjoy D. mind

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate

the correct answer to each of the questions.

Music therapy is using music to help people with a variety of problems. For example, it can help people with communication and speech problems speak better. It can help people with memory problems remember things from their past. Music therapy can also help people manage stress and be more relaxed. It can even make people with bad pain feel better.

In music therapy, a music therapist works with one person alone or with small groups. The therapist meets with the person and does tests to find out what the problem is and what the person can do with music. Then the therapist decides what kind of music therapy to use. Some people sing, and others might compose music, but a person doesn't need to know about music to be helped by music therapy. There are options such as listening to music and dancing to music. Research shows that these activities are good for the body and for the mind.

Homes that take care of elderly people often have music therapy programs. The programs help the elderly be more energetic and also help with memory problems. Some hospitals have music therapy for patients who are in a lot of pain. Music can affect a part of the brain that reduces pain.

Trevor Gibbons is one example of a person who was helped by music therapy. In 2000, he was putting in windows on the fourth floor of a building when he fell. He was in the hospital for over a year. He was in a lot of pain, and he couldn’t talk. He went from the hospital to a rehabilitation center that has a music therapy program, and a music therapist worked with him for several years. He could sing more easily than he could talk. Trevor says that music also helped him manage loneliness, sadness, and pain after he was hurt. Music and the music therapist inspired him, and he has written and sung many songs. He has even recorded CDs and performed at Lincoln Center in New York.

(From “Four Corners 4” by Jack C. Richards and David Bohlke)

Question 36: Which is the main idea of the passage?

A. the history of music therapy B. the life of a music therapist

C. other uses of music D. music for the elderly

Question 37: According to paragraph 1, music can be helpful for all of the following people EXCEPT _______.

A. people with good stress management B. people with communication and speech problems

C. people with bad pain D. people with memory problems

Question 38: According to the passage, the kind of music therapy is chosen by _______.

A. the composer B. the patient C. the therapist D. the singer

Question 39: The word “energetic” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to _______.

A. rich in money B. short of breath C. full of life D. lack of energy

Question 40: It is stated in the passage that _______.

A. listening and dancing to music are not included in music therapy

B. homes for the aged don’t have music therapy programs

C. in music therapy some people sing or even compose music

D. Trevor Gibbons hurt himself when he fell off the fifth floor

Question 41: It can be inferred from the last paragraph that a rehabilitation center is _______.

A. a center for victims of natural disasters B. a center for people to recover from injuries

C. a center for poor or homeless people D. a center for disabled or disadvantaged children

Question 42: Which of the following statements is TRUE about music therapy?

A. Trevor Gibbons was not helped by music therapy.

B. A music therapist always works with one person each time.

C. A person must know about music to be helped by music therapy.

D. Music can reduce pain by affecting a part of the brain.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate

the correct answer to each of the questions.

Every four years the world watches the Olympic Games, which start when somebody from the host country carries a torch into the stadium and lights the flame in the opening ceremony. The flame continues to burn throughout the games until it is extinguished in the closing ceremony.

This is a tradition that started in ancient Greece, when a fire burnt throughout the ancient Olympics, but it was not introduced to the modern games until 1928. The modern world welcomed the idea of an Olympic flame with enthusiasm. In 1936, Carl Diem, a German sports official, came up with the idea of an Olympic torch relay for the 1936 Summer Olympics in Berlin. Since then the torch relay has been part of the Olympic Games.

The Olympic torch is lit many months before the opening ceremony at Olympia, the site of the ancient Olympics in Greece. Eleven women take part and one of them lights the torch from the sun using a special mirror. After this, there is a ceremony in the Athenian Panathmaiko Stadium, where the Athens city authorities deliver the torch to the officials of the host city.

This ceremony is then followed by the torch relay. Traditionally, runners, including athletes, celebrities and ordinary people carry the torch on a journey from Athens to the host city. The relay lasts for many months and goes through many countries. Sometimes the torch travels by boat, or by plane.

The relay ends when the torch arrives at the Olympic stadium where the Games will take place. The final carrier of the torch is often kept secret until the last moment, and is usually a famous sportsman or woman. They run around the track and towards a huge cauldron, which is usually at the top of a staircase. They use the torch to light the Olympic flame.

The torch relay represents the passing of Olympic traditions from one generation to the next. Originally, the flame represented the “ endeavor for protection and struggle for victory". Since it was introduced again in 1928, it has come to represent “the light of spirit, knowledge, and life”.

(From “Solutions Pre-intermediate” by Tim Falla and Paul A Davis)

Question 43: Which of the followings can be the best title of the passage?

A. The Olympic Closing Ceremony B. The Olympic Games

C. The Olympic Flame D. The Olympic Opening Ceremony

Question 44: The word “extinguished” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to _______.

A. gone out B. taken out C. put out D. watched out

Question 45: According to the passage, Carl Diem, a German sports official, _______.

A. started the tradition of the ancient Olympics B. came up with the idea of an Olympic flame

C. introduced the Olympic flame in 1928 D. suggested the idea of an Olympic torch relay

Question 46: The word “it” in paragraph 2 refers to _______.

A. the tradition of burning a fire B. the ancient Olympics C. ancient Greece D. the modern Olympics

Question 47: It is stated in paragraph 3 that the Olympic torch _______.

A. is lit from a burning flame at Olympia B. is lit by using the sun’s energy

C. is lit a short time before the opening ceremony D. is lit by a group of women in a special way

Question 48: According to the passage, what is the torch delivering ceremony followed?

A. a torch sprint B. a torch relay C. a torch lighting D. a torch extinguishing

Question 49: The word “originally” in the last paragraph is closest in meaning to _______.

A. at ease B. at once C. at last D. at first

Question 50: Which of the following statements is NOT TRUE about the Olympic torch?

A. The torch is not traditionally carried by ordinary people.

B. The torch relay has been part of the Olympics since 1936.

C. The final torch carrier is often unknown until the last moment.

D. The torch relay ends at the stadium where the Olympics is held.

THE END

ĐÁP ÁN

1 A	2B	3D	4B	5B	6A	7C	8D	9D	10B
11A	12B	13A	14C	15C	16D	17A	18B	19C	20D
21B	22D	23C	24B	25B	26A	27A	28D	29D	30A
31C	32B	33B	34C	35A	36A	37A	38C	39C	40C
41B	42D	43C	44C	45D	46A	47B	48B	49A	50A

10 Đề Thi Thử THPT QG Môn Tiếng Anh 2020 Có Đáp Án - Tập 3

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